French language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
13,734 questions • 29,429 answers • 837,312 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
13,734 questions • 29,429 answers • 837,312 learners
In the mini quiz after the lesson on Du, I translated this sentence as “Julie wants some chocolate”. The lesson on “du” clearly stated this to mean “some”. Why was I marked as not correct? The answer was given as “Julie wants chocolate”. If this translation is the preferred one why is it not taught in the relevant lesson?
le courage de me jeter dans le vide!
why is the adjective here after the noun?
J'habiterais dans une villa gigantesque - I thought "size" went before a noun
I answered that this word was not feminine, even tho it ends in -e, and was marked incorrect. A subsequent lesson noted that romantisme is an exception and is masculine. Please clarify, thank you
Why is it l'an prochain and not l'année prochaine?
Hi, this question is in reference to your lesson on when verbs with the auxiliary of avoir have to agree :
Special cases when the past participle agrees (in number & gender) when used with 'avoir' in the compound past in French (Le Passé Composé)
I'm wondering about the second verb in this sentence: "Ils ont essayé d'échapper aux Nazis et entassé/entassés dans la rue." Even though the COD is in front of the 2nd verb (entasser), it is the COD for the first verb, essayer. Thus, the second verb, entasser would not be plural?
Bonjour, j'ai répondu à une question où je devais transformer l'affirmation suivante "Marie vient demain" en une question en utilisant ''n'est-ce pas ?". Ma réponse "Marie vient-elle demain, n'est-ce pas ?" a été jugée fausse, mais je n'ai pas compris pourquoi je ne peux pas utiliser l'inversion dans ce cas. Je vous remercie d'avance!
I am having a bit of a problem with the questions on my iPad.. about 50% of the time it jumps the second question and says that I have not answered it.. but cannot retake!
Not the prime purpose of the lesson - but in the examples, why is 'you have been lying' the English translation of «tu as menti» (passé composé) rather than tu mentais (imparfait)? If the English translation was 'you lied' I would understand, as that implies an episode that is finished, but in English 'you have been lying' leaves open ' for a long time' and 'and you still are' scenarios - that is the sense that it could be ongoing and it is unclear when it started. The translation has me questioning (again) what further I need to understand to grasp the nuances of this past tense distinction.
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