Factors that went into Lawless French classifying the Conditional as a mood in it's own right.After all this time learning French l decide today to develop an English/French go-to chart for translation purposes.
All of a sudden, the conditional tense sitting in the indicative mood in my little Bescherelle conjugaison book looks out of place. Why is it there, in a mood that expresses facts and certainties, things that definitely happened?
A little research in Bescherelle, on the web and here surface the fact that the Conditional in French is often classified as a mood unto itself (as in Lawless French) due to it's hypothetical expressions; and that more often, today, "pour des raisons de forme et de sens"(Bescherelle p.140), as a tense under the imperative. An example given for the latter is that "aurait" , conditional present, equates the future present transposed into the past. So interesting! I had not seen this before.
I wonder, what went into Lawless French's decision to classify the Conditional as a mood apart instead of as under the Indicative mood? Either works , l am just curious.
Is another translation of this: Il a abattu le parrain? My French dictionary gives the definition of abattre as `to shoot down ` or `to kill` Is there a nuance?
After all this time learning French l decide today to develop an English/French go-to chart for translation purposes.
All of a sudden, the conditional tense sitting in the indicative mood in my little Bescherelle conjugaison book looks out of place. Why is it there, in a mood that expresses facts and certainties, things that definitely happened?
A little research in Bescherelle, on the web and here surface the fact that the Conditional in French is often classified as a mood unto itself (as in Lawless French) due to it's hypothetical expressions; and that more often, today, "pour des raisons de forme et de sens"(Bescherelle p.140), as a tense under the imperative. An example given for the latter is that "aurait" , conditional present, equates the future present transposed into the past. So interesting! I had not seen this before.
I wonder, what went into Lawless French's decision to classify the Conditional as a mood apart instead of as under the Indicative mood? Either works , l am just curious.
This is first time, I understand quite well. Just takes more practices to know the liaison
In the phrase "J'entends encore Papi râler comme il descendait..." why isn't the second verb râler conjugated given the subject changed?
Pourqui "funérailles " à place de "funéraire "?
The example I sighted uses Une tenue (not une chemise) and the correct answer was given as:
une tenue bleu marine.
mine is the James se présente and
Entretien avec un vampireI came back to the lesson and it is wrong: The subject is 'tu', so it should be "Tu 'veux' de l'eau ?", not 'veut'. That is even the lesson's example.
Why the bot considered 'veut' right? Is that really a possible answer?
why is verb avons montrés not avons montré?
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