French spelling reforms of 1990The French are officially "encouraged" to use the "new spelling" of the reforms of 1990 (but the old forms are still allowed). The new spelling is now taught in schools for example and is included in style guides for various media groups. However your algorithm always seems to correct "plait" to the ancient spelling of "plaît", insisting on the unnecessary circumflex. I'm used to it now, as I have been corrected a number of times in various exercises like this one, but surely this must confuse some of your other subscribers? (In my opinion you should probably mark us correct for both options, but if only one is preferred then maybe it could be the new official spelling?)
P.S. Since writing this, I have found some conjugation guides give : Je plais, tu plais, il plaît, nous plaisons, vous plaisez and ils plaisent. With the circumflex included only in the 3rd person singular (which is the only case where it is followed by a "t"), but I have been unable to find a reason for this, or even whether it is correct?
Great topic (though I had to Google "Brabant")!
Why didnt we say : On ne doit pas parle la bouch pleine
instead of On ne doit pas parler la bouch pleine
since it is ER ending verb is that the right way ?
Can someone explain the use of "à" in these two sentences:
Elle se trouva confrontée aux limites de l'époque (why is it used to mean "with" in this sentence?)
Mais cette femme à la forte personnalité (also meaning with?)
When you say "Believe me," do you say, "vous me croyez" or "vous croyez en moi"? Are these the same thing?
Hi. Could you please send examples of negation with object pronouns and conjugated verb + infinitive? So for example are these sentences wrong:
Je ne veux pas les y retrouver?
On ne peut pas y en acheter? On ne peut pas y acheter plus?
My native French friend (Paris & Bordeaux based) has never heard of “ Être chocolat”. Is this a local regional expression?
Bonjour au forum et à tous les experts
Une question à propos de la phrase - 'On a été extrêmement impressionnés par la profondeur des galeries'.
Je comprends c'est correcte, mais si je veux parler du passé plus récent, pourrais-je le mettre - 'On était extrêmement impressionnés par la profondeur des galeries?' ou devrais-je le mettre 'on avait extrêmement impressionnés par la profondeur des galeries?'
Je suis un peux confondu parce que 'était impressionné' me son correcte aux oreilles. Par contre, 'on avait impressionné ne m'apparait pas correcte de tout. Cependant, tout ce que j'ai appris du grammaire me dirige à penser que 'impressionne' est un avoir verb qui utilise 'avoir' pour le faire passé
Pls is "assez" still serving as adverbe in a sentence where 'être' is used. - "Ma Ville est assez banale". Qu'est-ce que cela veut dire, s'il vous plaît?
"Give birth" - why not "donner naissance"?
The French are officially "encouraged" to use the "new spelling" of the reforms of 1990 (but the old forms are still allowed). The new spelling is now taught in schools for example and is included in style guides for various media groups. However your algorithm always seems to correct "plait" to the ancient spelling of "plaît", insisting on the unnecessary circumflex. I'm used to it now, as I have been corrected a number of times in various exercises like this one, but surely this must confuse some of your other subscribers? (In my opinion you should probably mark us correct for both options, but if only one is preferred then maybe it could be the new official spelling?)
P.S. Since writing this, I have found some conjugation guides give : Je plais, tu plais, il plaît, nous plaisons, vous plaisez and ils plaisent. With the circumflex included only in the 3rd person singular (which is the only case where it is followed by a "t"), but I have been unable to find a reason for this, or even whether it is correct?
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