il n'en est venu aucun.......??Bonjour,
I found very interesting sentence causing me a headache.... "Il n'en est venu aucun".
According to lessons, the sentence is negated by placing the two parts of the negation on each side of the auxiliary verb (avoir or être) in a compound sentence like the passé..
However, as you can see in this sentence, one part of negation, "aucun" is located at the end of sentence. And I found this sentence from a dictionary and so there must be no grammer problem...
I've been searching and googling for hours but did not get any to understand the sentence...So, May I ask someone to kindly explain this please?
Thank you so much in advance!
In the poem "Tristesses de la lune" by Charles Baudelaire, there is a usage of "ainsi que" like:"Ce soir, la lune rêve avec plus de paresse ; Ainsi qu'une beauté..."
First I failed to include this usage to any of the ones above. However, I'm now inclined to think that it means "this way... that". An explanation would be great. Thanks.
This is the first lesson I can't work out the difference between the two structures something + "plaît à..." versus the reflexive something + "me plaisent."
Both descriptions say they are to like something, I can't work out when to use which structure. I've re-read the lesson about 3 times, so I'm looking for additional clarification..
In the quiz above, there was a question about the sentence:
Après manger, les filles feront leurs devoirs
I was slightly confused as I would have written this sentences as "apres avoir mange" (with appropriate accents) at the beginning and not apres manger. In this lesson it seems to imply that to write apres+infinitive is wrong: Après avoir fait = After doing in French (auxiliary avoir)
I think I may be missing something and would appreciate some help. Is manger being used as a noun here maybe?
Hello everyone one, there is little thing I can’t able to understand that is why before « quand » we are not using the preposition « à » when the expression have fixed- faire du mal à. After « mal » there should be a preposition. But in that sentence there is not. Why is it. Thank’s in advance.
Je comprendais des autres professeurs que l'inversion est utilisé moins que 1% du temps à l'oral car c'est trop soutenu, très formelle. Si c'est vrai, pourquoi n'acceptiez les deux formes plus utilisé: "Est-ce-que ..." et l'indicatif normal avec un point d'interrogation ?
Et oui, je sais que l'inversion est utilisée plus fréquent dans les journaux et en géneral en écrivant.
Ou, peut-etre mieux, vous pourriez constater que même que les inversions sont utilisées peu fréquent à l'oral, toutes ces questions utilise l'inversion du sujet et verbe.
Please how do you use n'aime..
Bonjour,
I found very interesting sentence causing me a headache.... "Il n'en est venu aucun".
According to lessons, the sentence is negated by placing the two parts of the negation on each side of the auxiliary verb (avoir or être) in a compound sentence like the passé..
However, as you can see in this sentence, one part of negation, "aucun" is located at the end of sentence. And I found this sentence from a dictionary and so there must be no grammer problem...
I've been searching and googling for hours but did not get any to understand the sentence...So, May I ask someone to kindly explain this please?
Thank you so much in advance!
I notice 'je me souviens écouter' is preferred over 'je me souviens d'écouter'. Is there any thinking on when you would use the 'de' and when not ?
Contrary to previous comments below in response to Dragana and Danica - this line can indeed translate as I am looking forward to the 31st (ie New Year's Eve in this case), which fits exactly the context of this story. It is not the expression "d'étre sur son 31" which would translate as '(to be) dressed up to the nines'
Hello, I'm wondering why the example in the lesson "J'ai remercié Lucas de m'avoir racompagnée hier" would have the feminine past participle following "m'avoir." Thanks for any help with this.
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