The rule concerning agreement of "tout" in different situations confuses me. Why isn't it written "toute à l'heure" so that tout agrees with the gender of l'heure? Thanks.
I found this explanation in Le Figaro but it does not explain why there is no agreement: https://www.lefigaro.fr/langue-francaise/expressions-francaises/2019/01/23/37003-20190123ARTFIG00047--toute-a-l-heure-ne-faites-plus-la-faute.php