Odile got dressed before having her breakfast. (le passé composé vs. l'imparfait)

Chris W.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

Odile got dressed before having her breakfast. (le passé composé vs. l'imparfait)

Why is "Odile got dressed before having her breakfast." translated as "Odile s'habillait..."? In my understanding this is a one-time action which happened in the past. It is, thus, a perfect candidate for the Passé composé: "Odile s'est habillée...", n'est-ce pas? -- Chris.
Asked 8 years ago
AurélieNative French expert teacher in KwiziqCorrect answer
Bonjour Claus !

Well, without a clear context, both tenses are correct, even though they bring different nuances.
"Odile s'habillait..." emphasises the progression/description of this action, almost as if time slowed a bit while we're watching this action happen.
With "Odile s'est habillée..." we see this action in a much briefer time frame, as done and over by the time we speak.

I hope that's helpful!
Chris W.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
Absolutely! Yet there is no context given in the question and only one of the translations is counted as correct. So I believe that this question would benefit from rewording. -- Chris.
AurélieNative French expert teacher in Kwiziq
Yes indeed! Would you by any chance remember which lesson was attached to that question? It would help me locate it :) Merci !
Chris W.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
Sorry, I have only the text in the subject line. Should I make a report in case I run across it again?
Chris W.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor
Ah, it's fixed now (you added "in the Imperfect tense" in the hint section). Thank you!

Odile got dressed before having her breakfast. (le passé composé vs. l'imparfait)

Why is "Odile got dressed before having her breakfast." translated as "Odile s'habillait..."? In my understanding this is a one-time action which happened in the past. It is, thus, a perfect candidate for the Passé composé: "Odile s'est habillée...", n'est-ce pas? -- Chris.

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