Le Passé Antérieur?

Gilberts I.B2Kwiziq community member

Le Passé Antérieur?

Is there some reason you don't cover Le Passé Antérieur in your lessons? Although it's probably not common, I'd still like to understand the structure. Am I correct to translate "I left after I'd eaten" ... or ... "after I'd eaten I left" as

- Je fus parti aprés que j'eus mangé

- Aprés que j'eus mangé, je fus parti

And am I also correct to translate "you left after you'd eaten" ... or ... "after you'd eaten you left" as

- vous fûtes parti aprés que vous eûtes mangé

- Aprés que vous eûtes mangé, vous fûtes parti

In both cases I'm not sure if both verbs use antérieur form, or just the "after" verb?

Asked 2 years ago
CécileNative French expert teacher in KwiziqCorrect answer

Hi Gilberts, 

I believe that we don't cover the passé antérieur as it is mainly obsolete in French.

You will probably find it in some classic novels but it sounds so ridiculous you won't need it in order to speak French.

Take a look at the partner site that Jim suggests if you really want to learn how it works.

Bonne Continuation !

Jim J.C1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

Hi Gilberts,

Suggest you have a look here, it should help?

https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/literary-tenses-moods/

Bonne journée

Jim

Le Passé Antérieur?

Is there some reason you don't cover Le Passé Antérieur in your lessons? Although it's probably not common, I'd still like to understand the structure. Am I correct to translate "I left after I'd eaten" ... or ... "after I'd eaten I left" as

- Je fus parti aprés que j'eus mangé

- Aprés que j'eus mangé, je fus parti

And am I also correct to translate "you left after you'd eaten" ... or ... "after you'd eaten you left" as

- vous fûtes parti aprés que vous eûtes mangé

- Aprés que vous eûtes mangé, vous fûtes parti

In both cases I'm not sure if both verbs use antérieur form, or just the "after" verb?

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