Can you explain why passé composé is used to translate 'I didn't have the time before my trip'? I always make this mistake because I think that the speaker means they didn't have the time for an extended period of time and I often think that imparfait should be used in those cases.
Je n'ai pas eu le temps avant mon voyage
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Danielle A.Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Je n'ai pas eu le temps avant mon voyage
This question relates to:French writing exercise "At the bureau de change"
Asked 1 year ago
Bonjour Danielle,
There is a defined end to the action, that is up to the point the trip commences.
Prior to that "not having the time" is a completed action and subsequently (when the trip starts) then is over and done with.
This is how I justify passé composé.
Hope this helps
Bonne journée
Jim
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