French language Q&A Forum

I'm confused about the usage of the adverb "mieux" and "meilleur(e)". In the sentence  "J'aime bien ta voiture, elle est mieux que la leur." adverb "mieux" is used, so the adverb now describes how the car *is*. So, I saw the verb "to be" being described by both the adverb and the adjective and I have no idea why it is so. 

If there is a lesson for that, that will help a lot.

As mentioned earlier, "chaque an" cannot be used to mean "chaque année". So I am wondering if "toutes les années" can be used instead of "tous les ans" ? 

I used C’est parfaitement bien instead of c’est très bien. Is that wrong?

Bonjour,

I'm a bit confused about how pouvoir in the conditional mood would translate/ be interpreted in English. How will I differentiate pouvoir in these two tenses?

Thank you! :)

This is given as an alternative. Does it have any meaning/use?

Salut.

Il y a une différence entre écablousser et patauger?

How do we use plus que parfait in grammar and in composition

The lesson seems to indicate that this separation is  'allowed' but 'irregular'.

 However it seems frequent and intrinsic enough in some translations to deserve identifying and defining as a rule of syntax.

If the 'possession' is the 'object' of the verb in the following clause then it is separated from dont and put after the verb in that clause. 'Dont' here is like a relative pronoun joining two clauses. All the examples support this  observation.

Tu as jeté la chaussure dont le talon est cassé.You threw away the shoe with the broken heel [lit. whose heel is broken]

BUT???Tu as jeté la chaussure chère dont  j'ai cassé  le talon.

Les enfants, dont je connais la maman, sont bien élevés.
François, dont j'ai rencontré la femme le mois dernier