French language Q&A Forum

In the first sentence of the full text at the end of the lesson, the last phrase text reads "...mon père et moi avons décidé d'aller à la pêche !", but the audio says ..."alors, mon père et moi avons décidé d'aller à la pêche !" 

During the exercise, the text for this phrase also reads "...mon père et moi avons décidé d'aller à la pêche !", but the audio says"...donc, mon père et moi avons décidé d'aller à la pêche !"

Since "comme" is the qualifier in the preceding phrase, the use of either "alors" or "donc" doesn't seem to make sense.

In this lesson appears the following commentary:

In the interest of clarity, isn't this clearer with a right parenthesis after "past participle"?

How come there's no "la" in front of Guadeloupe?

There's even a suggested lesson for this translation exercise that says that country names are preceded by the definite article? Using le, la, l', les with continents, countries & regions names (definite articles)%252Fsearch%253Fs%253Darticle%252Bcountry

Pourquoi "tu es" est-il la bonne réponse ici ? 

Looking back through the Quick Lesson and the accompanying discussion I still can’t tell the difference between “none arrived” and “no one arrived”. Aren’t they just two ways of saying the same thing? (Albeit, the second being my preference.)

Hello,

I just started B2 and I had a hard time understanding a lot of this. I'm wondering if I should go back to a B1 level for awhile. Please let me know whether this is normal.

Thank you

The vernacular usage for "vers" with time appears to drop the determinate.  This doesn't appear to be true for the other usages of "vers".

What I had understood that verb attendre is not followed by any preposition….elle attendait de m’entendre…. Why are we using de here ?