French language Q&A Forum

Second sentence, 'dormi' sounds like 'dorni' - that is, no 'm' sound.  Third sentence, 'et il a' sounds like 'et la' - that is, no 'il' sound.

Bonjour, 

Est-ce qu'il y a une nuance sous-jacente liée à l'utilisation de "en admettant que/en supposant que" pour dénoter une réserve/restriction? Par exemple, si l'on dit "J'irai le voir en mars en supposant/en admettant qu'il n'ait pas trouvé un nouvel emploi ailleurs d'ici là", vaut-il mieux d'opter pour "à condition que" ou même "si" pour dégager une impression plus neutre? 

Merci d'avance

According to the article, to express the previous time - we could use la dernière fois + the clause of the sentence. (la dernière fois is used interchangeably with la fois dernière if without a clause)

We can also use the same to express the last (final) time - la dernière fois + the clause.

How do I know which one this refers to? It could mean both the final time, or the previous time in the above sentence. 

I notice the recommended translations of 'who herself became Queen of France' are all 'qui elle-même devint reine de France'.

But I assume you could also write 'qui devint elle-même reine de France' ?

Or does this sound less natural to French ears?

Google translates "tu dois du repos" as "you need some rest." But it sounds like Kwiziq only wants us to use devoir before an infinitive. However, the lesson only says "sometimes you can use devoir" without any explanation or examples. Despite the fact that multiple people have been complaining about this for years!

I think also the English translation might be tripping me up in certain instances. Like "you need to take a day off" in English uses the infinitive verb "to take" but in French it's "you need " which is a noun. It would be nice if the lesson explained that. 

I hate having to just memorize the quiz maker's answer without understanding why Kwiziq thinks it's correct.

In English, "he doesn't go to bed before midnight" means pretty much the same thing as "he doesn't ever go to bed before midnight." I mean, I chose the correct answer but this kind of thing drives me crazy. Instead of being about what it says in French, it's about what's in the quiz maker's head as they translate it to English. The literal translation is "he doesn't go to bed before midnight" but if they want to contrast that with "he doesn't ever," then the intended meaning seems to be more like "he isn't going to bed before midnight." Actually, I'm trying to guess what the quiz maker thinks the difference in meaning is between those two English sentences and I give up.

Why is it "de jolies cartes romantiques " and not " des jolies cartes romantiques "?  It seems like it should be parallel with "des boites" and "des bijoux".  Thanks.

I debated on whether to choose "she takes dance lessons" or "she's dancing." Although "she's dancing" isn't correct, "she takes dance lessons" seems too precise. It seems to me you could dance regularly in a structured way without necessarily taking lessons. For example, if you are a dancer. 

So although "she's dancing" is incorrect, "she dances" (in the sense that she's a dancer) seemed like it might be what you meant in English. "Elle fait de la danse" would work to mean "she takes dance lessons" but does it necessarily refer to lessons? Or can it refer to any regularly scheduled dancing?

The answer “et j’ai toujours été très romantique”. Could you explain why this isn’t in the imparfait tense? “j’étais toujours…. ?

Merci pour un texte du moment. 🥰

J'ai une question de vocabulaire.

Est-ce que « pour qu'elles vous SOUTIENNENT jusqu'à la prochaine fois » est acceptable comme une traduction ?

Si non, j'aimerais bien comprendre la raison.

Merci beaucoup.